ISTQB CTAL_TM_001 Exam Dumps [2025] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question
CTAL_TM_001 Dumps - Grab Out For [NEW-2025] ISTQB Exam
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NEW QUESTION # 15
Assuming that 'In progress' means that somebody is working on a fix and that 'Resolved' means that the fix passed the confirmation test; which option provides a defect workflow that flows in a sensible way from an initial state to a terminal state?
- A. In progress, Under Investigation, Deferred, Retest, Resolved, Closed
- B. New, Under Investigation, Rejected, Re-test, Resolved, Closed
- C. New, Under Investigation, In progress, Re-test, Resolved, Closed, Deferred
- D. New, under investigation, Deferred, In progress, Re-test, Resolved, Closed
Answer: D
Explanation:
A typical defect workflow should begin with a newly reported issue ("New"), proceed to investigation, allow for deferral if necessary, move to fixing ("In Progress"), re-testing, and finally confirmation of resolution and closure. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, valid states of a defect report include:New, Under Investigation, Deferred, In Progress, Re-Test, Resolved, Closed.
NEW QUESTION # 16
A test team is working long hours to achieve a deadline for release of a new product which has had problems throughout development and is well behind schedule. Which of the following is most likely to have a MOTIVATING effect on the testers in the team?
SELECT ONE OPTION
- A. A decrease in the scope of testing that the team is responsible for
- B. Routine measurement of outstanding defects during testing.
- C. Testers contributing to ideas for faster defect resolution during regular meetings with the developers.
- D. A planned bonus payment that will be based on customer satisfaction with the product once released.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 17
You are a Test Manager on a new project. The software that is being created will be used to control the projectors in movie theaters. This is a time critical project because the software must be released before the Christmas holiday season which has the highest movie attendance of the year.
You have decided to implement a review process for the work products that are a part of this release to save both time and money. In order to expedite the training, you brought in a consultant to train the participants and moderators in proper review processes. Your team is enthusiastic about participating in the reviews.
The project is in the early planning stages. As the review leader, what is an appropriate activity for you to be doing at this point in the project? [3]
- A. Gathering metrics to determine the success of the review process
- B. Setting a minimum number of defects to be identified in each review
- C. Calculating the ROI for the review process
- D. Selecting the review items and the appropriate review type
Answer: D
Explanation:
As the review leader, one of your responsibilities is to plan the review process and select the review items and the appropriate review type for each item1. This activity should be done in the early planning stages of the project, as it will help to define the scope, objectives, and schedule of the reviews. The review items are the work products that will be reviewed, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. The review type is the level of formality and rigor that will be applied to the review, such as informal review, walkthrough, technical review, or inspection2. The selection of the review items and the review type should be based on factors such as the criticality, complexity, and risk of the work products, the availability and expertise of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, and the expected benefits and outcomes of the reviews3. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because gathering metrics to determine the success of the review process is an activity that should be done after the review process is completed, not in the early planning stages. Option C is incorrect because calculating the ROI for the review process is an activity that should be done after the review process is completed, not in the early planning stages. Option D is incorrect because setting a minimum number of defects to be identified in each review is not an appropriate activity for the review leader, as it may create a false sense of quality or pressure on the reviewers. Reference: 1: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.3 2: ISTQB Advanced Level Test Manager Syllabus, Section 2.2.2 3: Review Types - Testing Traveler, the post about review types
NEW QUESTION # 18
As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit
- A. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
- B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.
- C. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.
- D. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the primary use for the traceability information regarding the relationship between test results and test conditions during test execution? [2]
- A. The development manager uses this information to determine how many developer resources to allocate to defect repair.
- B. The Test Manager uses this information to control the test execution effort.
- C. The tester uses this information to determine which test should be run next.
- D. The project manager uses this information to determine if the project is on schedule.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The Test Manager uses this information to control the test execution effort. This is because traceability information regarding the relationship between test results and test conditions can help the Test Manager to measure and evaluate the test progress, quality, and coverage, and to take corrective actions when necessary. For example, the Test Manager can use this information to identify and prioritize the test conditions that have not been tested yet, to analyze the test results and the defect status, and to adjust the test execution plan and schedule accordingly. Test Monitoring and Control - ISTQB not-for-profit association Reference: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Monitoring and Control - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following software characteristics are possibly revealed through the application of a open source static analysis tool? [1]
- A. Coding standard violations
- B. Memory leaks
- C. Concurrency thresholds
- D. Timing dependencies
Answer: A
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is a software tool that analyzes the source code of a program without executing it. It can detect various software characteristics, such as syntax errors, potential bugs, security vulnerabilities, code quality, and coding standard violations. Coding standard violations are deviations from the agreed or recommended rules and conventions for writing source code, such as naming, indentation, formatting, commenting, and complexity. A static analysis tool can check the source code against a predefined or customized coding standard and report any violations. Coding standard violations can affect the readability, maintainability, and portability of the code, and can also introduce defects or inconsistencies. List of tools for static code analysisTop 5 Open Source Source and Free Static Code Analysis Tools in 2020 Reference:
List of tools for static code analysis - Wikipedia
Top 5 Open Source Source and Free Static Code Analysis Tools in 2020 - GeeksforGeeks
NEW QUESTION # 21
It is now the last day of the second iteration and the team has been consistently underestimating the time needed. They estimate intuitively rather than using estimation techniques.
Which two estimation techniques would be BEST for the team in this scenario?
- A. 3-point estimation
- B. Estimation of test effort based on ratio
- C. Wideband Delphi
- D. Velocity extrapolation
- E. Planning poker
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
* C (3-point estimation):Offers a structured approach to improve accuracy by accounting for uncertainty.
* D (Planning poker):Commonly used in Agile; supports collaborative and experiential-based estimation.
"Planning poker is an example of the expert-based approach... team members are estimating the effort to deliver a feature based on their experience."
- ISTQB-CTFL_Syllabus_2018_V3.1, section 5.2.6
NEW QUESTION # 22
You are interviewing a candidate for the position of test analyst. At one stage of the interview, you are looking specifically for skills in the area of professional competence. Which of the following skills would demonstrate this?
- A. Communication
- B. Black box test design
- C. Ability to delegate
- D. Analytical ability
Answer: B
Explanation:
Professional competence in the context of a test analyst refers to the technical knowledge and abilities directly related to testing. Designing tests using black-box techniques is a core part of the test analyst role and is clearly classified under professional (technical) competence. This skill involves understanding the system's external behavior and deriving test conditions based on that - a hallmark of functional testing.
Reference:ISTQB CTFL Syllabus section 4.2 on black-box techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which three of the following would be considered a good mix of technical and interpersonal skills (hard and soft), for a test team leader?
a. Ability to compliment a developer.
b. Presenting information regarding a test project progress to stakeholders c. Using a configuration management tool.
d. Ability to read a development coding language
e. Assessing a failure and documenting it correctly.
- A. b, d and e.
- B. c. d and e.
- C. a. b and e.
- D. a. c and d.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 24
Your organization has decided to augment your testing team with an offshore team. The offshore team members are experienced testers who are experts in the domain of the system under test Your team is worried about the offshore team taking their jobs and they are resistant to the change You need to pick three of your team members to be the ambassadors for the new team Which competences will be most important for your ambassadors to possess?
- A. Social competence and personal competence
- B. Personal competence and professional competence
- C. Professional competence and methodological competence
- D. Methodological competence and social competence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scenario Analysis:
The testing team is being augmented with an offshore team, creating potential friction and resistance due to concerns about job security.
The ambassadors' role is critical to ensure smooth collaboration and to address the concerns of the existing team while fostering trust and communication with the offshore team.
Correct Option Justification:
Option C (Social competence and personal competence):
Social competence ensures that ambassadors can effectively communicate, build trust, and resolve conflicts between the onshore and offshore teams. This is essential for fostering collaboration and mitigating resistance.
Personal competence focuses on self-awareness, adaptability, and emotional intelligence,which are crucial for managing their team's concerns and acting as role models for positive behavior during the transition.
Together, these competences address the interpersonal dynamics and morale issues inherent in such a situation.
Option A (Professional competence and methodological competence):
While valuable in other contexts, technical and methodological skills are secondary in this situation. The ambassadors' primary role is to facilitate collaboration, not to focus on domain expertise or process methodologies.
Option B (Methodological competence and social competence):
Methodological competence (e.g., understanding tools and processes) is less critical here than personal competence, as the challenge is more about team dynamics and less about technical execution.
Option D (Personal competence and professional competence):
Professional competence (e.g., domain expertise) is not the priority in addressing team resistance or fostering offshore collaboration. Social competence is more crucial to building relationships and trust.
Key Competence Emphasis:
The ISTQB Advanced Test Management syllabus highlights the importance of social and interpersonal skills in managing stakeholder relationships, team dynamics, and cross-functional collaborations (TM-3.1.5).
Syllabus References:
The syllabus emphasizes the importance of team management and addressing concerns during organizational changes. Ambassadors need to focus on team integration, cultural adaptation, and resolving resistance to change.
Exam Structure Reference:
This question aligns with K2 (understanding) in the ISTQB Advanced Test Management exam, focusing on understanding the roles and skills necessary for successful team collaboration and management.
NEW QUESTION # 25
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
- A. Availability
- B. Portability
- C. Reliability
- D. Safety
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 26
You are working In an environment that is continually pushing process improvements down to the lest team You are skeptical that any of these have actually accomplished any improvement In fact you know that some of the changes have actually impaired progress Given this information what step of the IDEAL model is missing?
- A. Establishing
- B. Acting
- C. Diagnosing
- D. Learning
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Understanding the IDEAL Model:
* The IDEAL model (Initiating, Diagnosing, Establishing, Acting, Learning) is a framework for process improvement.
* In this case, theLearningphase is missing, which involves evaluating the outcomes of implemented changes to identify what worked and what did not.
* Evaluation of Options:
* A(Diagnosing) andB(Establishing) refer to earlier stages of the model.
* C(Acting) relates to implementing changes but does not address the lack of retrospective evaluation.
* Dis correct as the problem lies in not assessing the success of past improvements.
References and Syllabus Alignment:
* The IDEAL model is covered under "Improving the Testing Process" (TM-1.5.4) in the ISTQB syllabus
NEW QUESTION # 27
You have been promoted to Test Manager within your company. Your new manager states that your test team utilized a risk-based test approach for the last release but in production, a number of serious failures in lightly tested areas have occurred.
What would be your first action prior to the start of the next test phase for the next release? [3]
- A. Review the test cases executed from the previous release.
- B. Ensure you have the correct stakeholders' participation during the risk assessment process
- C. Request functional requirements be prioritized in order of importance to the stakeholder.
- D. Review the production defects and determine if they are valid.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best action that the Test Manager can take prior to the start of the next test phase for the next release is to ensure that the correct stakeholders' participation during the risk assessment process. This is because the risk assessment process is crucial for identifying and prioritizing the risks that may affect the quality of the system, andallocating testing resources accordingly. The correct stakeholders are those who have the authority, knowledge, and interest in the system and its risks, and who can provide valuable input and feedback to the test team. By involving the correct stakeholders, the Test Manager can ensure that the risk-based test approach is aligned with the project objectives and the stakeholder expectations, and that the most critical areas are tested adequately. References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Managing the Test Team - ISTQB not-for-profit association
NEW QUESTION # 28
You are Test Manager working on a project which is improving the user interface for its call centre staff handling customer enquiries. The project has completed UAT for the first iteration; however a large number of defects were raised by call centre staff seconded to help with the User Acceptance testing.
The defects described the user interface as not being intuitive enough with a poor 'help' facility. A user representative spent a week working with developers and system testers to explain the issues, which were subsequently agreed to have resulted from poorly specified usability requirements.
The requirements were defined separately for each iteration and have been formally reviewed by business analysts, developers and the IT director.
The user representative was also able to answer a number of other questions that the system test team had regarding call centre workflows, which improved their domain knowledge.
You have been asked to conduct a project retrospective and recommend improvements for the next iteration which introduces further user interface changes. Which of the following would be the MOST effective improvement for the next iteration?
- A. System test cases to incorporate usability testing and be reviewed by a call centre user representative.
- B. Call centre representatives to participate in reviews of the user interface requirements.
- C. System test analysts to attend external training on usability testing techniques.
- D. A call centre user representative to be seconded to the system test team to help improve test design.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 29
Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.
Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit
- A. Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance
- B. Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements
- C. Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution
- D. Acceptance testing to verify the business process
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 30
Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
- A. (ii) and (iii)
- B. (i) and (ii)
- C. (i) and (iv)
- D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.
NEW QUESTION # 31
You have been looking at the actual vs expected defects in one high risk area of the software The actual is much higher than the expected value What should you do?
- A. Concentrate more testing in the area because the risk is clearly higher
- B. Concentrate less testing in the area because the defects are already found
- C. Reassess the risk with a higher impact number
- D. Reassess the risk with a higher likelihood number
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context Analysis:
Higher-than-expected defects in a high-risk area indicate the need for additional testing to mitigate potential impacts.
Evaluation of Options:
A . Reassess the risk with a higher likelihood number:
Incorrect. While reassessment is useful, immediate action should prioritize more testing.
B . Reassess the risk with a higher impact number:
Incorrect. The impact may already be known, and more testing is the next practical step.
C . Concentrate more testing in the area because the risk is clearly higher:
Correct. Addressing higher-than-expected defects through focused testing ensures risks are adequately mitigated.
D . Concentrate less testing in the area because the defects are already found:
Incorrect. Higher defects warrant more testing, not less.
Syllabus Alignment:
ISTQB highlights increasing test efforts in high-risk areas with higher-than-expected defect levels (TM-1.3.4).
Reference:
ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.3.4)
NEW QUESTION # 32
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